[DiscordArchive] since effect 1 is target none, we're forced to use effect 0 hittarget to apply the debuff, right?
[DiscordArchive] since effect 1 is target none, we're forced to use effect 0 hittarget to apply the debuff, right?
Archived author: Telegrill • Posted: 2025-10-25T09:49:23.396000+00:00
Original source
since effect 1 is target none, we're forced to use effect 0 hittarget to apply the debuff, right?
Archived author: Telegrill • Posted: 2025-10-25T09:49:48.274000+00:00
Original source
by the looks of it, at least, the debuff isn't apply either when the condition fails
Archived author: Tea • Posted: 2025-10-25T09:50:27.657000+00:00
Original source
yes
Archived author: Telegrill • Posted: 2025-10-25T09:50:49.308000+00:00
Original source
aight, still ugly decision for the target part
Archived author: Telegrill • Posted: 2025-10-25T09:52:06.325000+00:00
Original source
no bueno blizzard
Archived author: Telegrill • Posted: 2025-10-25T09:53:28.508000+00:00
Original source
could it be that they decided not to copypaste eff0 target types with trigger spell effect (both without and with a delay) because their spellsystem forces the spelltrigger to happen at the same time damage effect happens which might get in the way by already amplifying the damage?
Archived author: Telegrill • Posted: 2025-10-25T09:53:40.008000+00:00
Original source
since it uses mechanic effect mask
Archived author: Telegrill • Posted: 2025-10-25T09:54:17.648000+00:00
Original source
not the first time I've seen mechanics like this having the debuff as target_none